PBGC male mortality?

[Gary]

A plan provides that a lump sum is paid based on the PBGC male rates and factors as of 1/1 of a plan year.

With respect to mortality rates, some may say this means UP 84 + 1. However, PBGC rates include a unisex UP84 table with no age adjustment. So where does the rational to use UP84+1 for males come from? If anyone knows this. Otherwise I might argue to use the GAM83 PBGC table (Table 1, Appendix A, Part 4044 of ERISA).

Thanks, Gary

[david rigby]

I think, pre-GATT, that unisex mortality was required [that is, under IRC 417(e)(3)], but that no specific mortality table was required. Of course, the specifics (under GATT or otherwise) merely provide a minimum.

As an aside, I agree that this particular definition probably means UP84 +1, but stating in the document that the mortality basis is "PBGC male rates" is poor drafting. There is no excuse for not being precise in this area.