Guest michaelv Posted April 26, 2001 Posted April 26, 2001 If ownership of a company is based on A and B shares of stock, with the difference being that B shares are non-voting shares, would that impact HCE determination? For example, if there are 100 A shares and 100 B shares for a company, and Mr. A. owns 4 A shares and 20 B shares, is he an HCE? YES: He owns 24 out of 200 shares of a company, which is 12%, making him HCE. NO: Since only 4 of the shares are voting shares, he only owns 4 out of 100 shares, which is 4%, making him NHCE. Thanks for any comments.
David MacLennan Posted May 7, 2001 Posted May 7, 2001 I think he's an HCE. You use the rules under 416i, which state to use voting or non-voting stock, whichever gives 5% makes them an HCE. Also, options count as ownership too. Non-voting preferred stock can be excluded for controlled group purposes, but not for HCE test.
Guest michaelv Posted May 8, 2001 Posted May 8, 2001 I believe you are correct. After posting, I dug around some and arrived at the same answer. Thanks for your help.
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now