Jakyasar Posted December 8, 2021 Posted December 8, 2021 Hi I am fairly certain that it is ok to do the following but want to confirm: Joe owns 50% of company A (other 50% owned by unrelated person) Joe owns 100% of company B No affiliation between the 2 companies. Joe can set up a DB plan separately under each company with full 415(b) limits as long as ownership is 50% or less in company A, agree? Joe can set up a DC plan separately under each company with full 415(c) limits (58k in each company) as long as ownership is 50% or less in company A, agree? Please disregard any PBGC coverage issues as this is a general question Thanks
CuseFan Posted December 8, 2021 Posted December 8, 2021 Yes, but be careful on the (more than) 50% - is it just owns or "considered owning" as well? I don't recall, but if it includes the latter, then you need to make sure he has no currently exercisable option to buy the other 50% (or part thereof) as he would be considered as owning more than 50%. Kenneth M. Prell, CEBS, ERPA Vice President, BPAS Actuarial & Pension Services kprell@bpas.com
Jakyasar Posted December 8, 2021 Author Posted December 8, 2021 Very good point, thank you for pointing out.
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