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Have a client who is a physician who is paid as an independent contractor by a hospital and two medical clinics. He has his own corporation that sponsors a defined benefit pension plan and he is the only participant.

He just got hired as an employee at a VA Hospital. They have their own 401(k) plan. However, he will continue to do work for the two non-related medical clinics that pay his corporation. Since he has no ownership in the VA Hospital, no ownership in the medical clinics I would think no controlled group or affiliated service group exists and there should be no required aggregation for testing purposes.

Does anyone disagree?

Thank you.

 

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