Draper55 Posted December 8, 2022 Posted December 8, 2022 just wanted confirm my understanding that if a plan does not provide meaningful benefits to enough eligible employees for the plan year, but then adopts an amendment after the year end but before 10/15, that this does not impact the valuation for the year preceding the amendment. For example, 10 eligible ees and only 3 have meaningful benefits for year X. In year X+1, a timely amendment is adopted to correct the (a)(26) error for year X. There is no change to the valuation for year X and the 5500 for year X, yes?
Bri Posted December 9, 2022 Posted December 9, 2022 Sounds like the -11g amendment is getting adopted more than 2.5 months after the end of the plan year, so you would indeed not see it in the valuation results for year X. Luke Bailey 1
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