jkharvey Posted February 22, 2007 Posted February 22, 2007 Here is the situation. One of the owners took no compensation in this plan year. If I pull him into the ADP test, they will pass. Without him, they fail. I don't want to take a chance and do the wrong thing. How is a participant who was eligible in prior years but has no comp in this year treated?
WDIK Posted February 22, 2007 Posted February 22, 2007 One of many. http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=23366 ...but then again, What Do I Know?
jkharvey Posted February 22, 2007 Author Posted February 22, 2007 Thank you so much. I tried to search but I'm not very good at it. So I can find the other posts, can you please tell me your search parameters? Thanks again.
John Feldt ERPA CPC QPA Posted February 22, 2007 Posted February 22, 2007 Well, the beginning of that link sure was interesting (if you're a math major). 21 / 7 = 3 Why is this true, well because you multiply both sides by 7 and get 21 = 3 x 7 So, 0 / 0 = 19 um, well, to prove that we multiply both sides by zero and we get 0 = 19 x 0 yeah, sure. So if you include them in the test (but please don't) then you can say it is equal to any result you need as Tom Poje indicated, but the IRS won't buy it (if they ever look into it). Since I wasn't watching this board in Feb 2004, I missed out on the singalong, bummer. Oh, and sorry Lynn (from Feb 2004), 0 / 0 can be any number you want (not the same as undefined, but instead, it's indeterminate). Undefined would be any number divided by zero, other than zero itself. If 1 / 0 = Z then Z has no option where 1 = Z x 0, thus Z is undefined. Man, that was fun!
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