emmetttrudy Posted September 21, 2009 Posted September 21, 2009 In a defined benefit plan is it okay to have the participant pay the distribution fee out of his/her accrued benefit? For example, if the lump sum was $1,000 and the distribution fee is $100, can the participant only be paid $900? My feeling is that this is not okay since you are now paying the participant less than their accrued benefit.
PensionPro Posted September 21, 2009 Posted September 21, 2009 You may expenses from the plan assets but the participant must be paid $1,000. PensionPro, CPC, TGPC
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