I agree. But depending upon how one interprets things, I don't see this situation as excusing the borrower from her obligation? I'm assuming the loan is secured by the account balance. There's a legally enforceable obligation to repay, and the level amortization requirement is overridden under Q&A-9. Peter, have you ever seen this come up, one way or the other? With what result/interpretation?
Your objectivity in analysis of statutes/regulations/etc. is always unparalleled, but to put you on the spot here, (if you are willing), if you were a Plan Administrator, would you allow such a loan? If you'd rather not answer that, I fully understand! This is a matter of personal curiosity only, as I've never seen this, nor do I expect to ever see such a request.
Thanks!!