Our parent company recently purchased another company. We're testing things to see how we'll pan out with the coverage test. Some of our plans now fail the ratio test (using the entire controlled group) so we're moving to the ABT.

As part of the ABPT on a stand-alone basis (no permissive aggregation yet), we need help with determining the denominator for each plan.

Plan A

NHCE avg benefit rate: 9%

HCE avg benefit rate: 10%

(1000 NHCEs and 200 HCEs)

Plan B

NHCE avg benefit rate: 4%

HCE avg benefit rate: 4.5%

(300 NHCEs and 50 HCEs)

Aggregate

NHCE avg benefit rate: 7.85%

HCE avg benefit rate: 7.25%

Do the results for Plan B come out as 88.9% (ie 4/4.5) or as 55.2% (4/7.25)?

Thanks.

Taxing issues aside, does anyone know if there is a rule that requires periodic payments to be paid for no longer than the life exepectancy of the participant?

Can a plan be amended mid year to exclude a category of employees?

Odd situation. Employee (Bob) terminates employment with Employer and begins taking distribution of a large benefit from Employer's nonqualified (stock unit) plan. That benefit is in 10 annual installments. If counted, each such installment is over the HCE comp threshold. Should those payments be counted when Bob is rehired to determine whether he's an HCE? If so, when? The question is crucial for Bob because Employer's qualified plan excludes all HCEs.

The qualified plan's definition of compensation for HCE determinations is--by cross-reference to § 1.415©-2(d)(4)--wages reported in Box 1 of W-2 that are "compensation to an employee by his employer." (Are payments to Bob from the nonqualified plan payments from Employer, for this purpose?) Per the 415 final regs, post-severance payments are excluded from this comp definition. (Are the installments "post-severance" even after Bob is rehired? Do the payments from the nonqualified plan count in determining whether Bob is an HCE his first year he's back? The next? Ever?)

I'm sure there's a rifle-shot answer to this that I'm not seeing. Thanks for any thoughts.

Can hardship distributions be taken from the SIMPLE match source in a SIMPLE 401(k) plan? I don't see anything that specifically prohibits it, but it seems that that source is akin to a safe harbor contribution or QNEC.

Thanks in advance for any guidance.

Small PS plan, making a cash distribution in January, 2013, for a participant who has terminated employment. 20% withheld will total $1,500.

Client is not set up to remit 20% electronically. Is the only other option that he sit on this $1,500 until next January, 2014 and then remit it with Form 945?

Thanks

Saw the following today - this could, if it is made reasonably user-friendly, be very good news in that a terminating DC plan with lost participants should presumably be able to transfer the funds to the PBGC. I've been waiting for this! I wondered if anyone had heard as to whether the DOL will be coordinating with the PBGC to deem such transfer as an appropriate fiduciary decision with a liability shield?

The Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) has released its semiannual regulatory agenda for Fall 2012, which outlines regulations that have been selected for amendment during the next year.

Proposed rule stage

Among the items in the PBGC’s proposed rule stage are:

• Proposed amendments that would amend the PBGC’s regulation on Reportable Events and Certain Other Notification Requirements (part 4043) to conform to changes under the Pension Protection Act of 2006 (PPA; P.L. 109-280) and the PBGC’s regulations on Premium Rates (part 4006).

• A proposed rule to implement section 410 of the PPA, which allows certain terminating plans not covered by the existing Missing Participants program to participate in that program.

Our documents typically state that the safe harbor matching contribution and compensation will be determined for the entire plan year. However, I have come across a document that says that the safe harbor match will be calculated based on compensation and deferrals on a payroll period basis.

I assume this means that the match will be deposited on a payroll period basis, but may need to be trued up at year end based on annual compensation. The employer is interpreting this to mean that if a participant defers $17,000 in a single pay period in January, only the compensation for that one pay period is considered in the match calculation and the compensation for the remainder of the year is disregarded. Surely this can't be correct or the employer would need to give us compensation for every person for every payroll period. How do I explain this to the client? The document language doesn't spell it out clearly.

Plan uses SH definition of hardship.

Participant has mother who has Alzheimer's, and he is paying the medical bills.

Would this qualify under SH hardship?

Since IRS hasn't released the 5500EZ yet (I didn't find it when I looked a few minutes ago), is it ok to file a final 2012 5500EZ using the 2011 form?

Just a note to say thanks to all the folks who are reporting spam posts.

Happily, only a few are being posted each day, and we're able to nuke them within a matter of hours and sometimes only minutes.

To report a posted message that you believe is spam, click on the "Report" link that appears towards the lower-right corner of that message. The result is you'll be able to send a private message to the Moderator of that message board. The moderator then has the ability to delete the message.

Your report also goes to the Super Moderators and to me (Administrator, Czar, Potentate, etc.), so there are additional people who are able to delete the message.

It is rare that a spam post lasts long, due to all of those watchdogs.

Thanks!

I know the topic of amending a SH 401(k) plan during a plan year has been covered pretty well. However, I have a tangent that was touched on but I don’t think ever answered.

My question is if a plan sponsor issues a SH contingent (e.g., “wait and see” or “maybe”) notice and then decides not to give the SH contribution can that plan be amended? Is a plan considered SH for the full year even if it does not give the SH contribution (and just subject to ADP testing)?

In this case we are talking about the plan’s non-safe harbor nonelective allocation formula; client wants to amend from an integrated to a new comp. The plan does have a 1000 hour and EOY requirement (on the non-SH feature).

If a 403(b) that maintains annuity contracts with TIAA and MassMutual has less than 121 participants it can continue to file a 5500-SF and no audit requirements, yes?

Here are the facts:

2009 PY: Participants at beginning 94 Participants at end 102

2010 PY: Participants at beginnging 102, Participants at end 114

2011 PY: beg 165. at end 198.

They need to have an audit for 2011, correct

Hi,

I realize that Puerto Rico plans (non dual qualified plans) are not subject to all the testing requirements under the US regs, e.g., top heavy testing. However, my colleagues and I have not found any indication that PR plans are or are not subject to benefits, rights, and features testing. Does anyone know whether Puerto Rico plans (non dual qualified plans) are subject to BRF testing?

Also, does anyone know a good source where I can find an english version of the PR regulations?

Thanks for you consideration to these questions.

Three IRS phone forums scheduled for February 2013

http://www.irs.gov/Retirement-Plans/Phone-Forums-Retirement-Plans

Ethical Standards for and Accountability of Practitioners Offering Tax Advice Relating to Employee Benefit Plans - February 13, 2013

Employee Plans Compliance Resolution System Changes - February 21, 2013 - Session #1 - (Morning)

Employee Plans Compliance Resolution System Changes - February 21, 2013 - Session #2 (Afternoon)

Overview of the 2012 Cumulative List of Plan Qualification Changes - February 28, 2013

A plan has 10 HCEs. Total refund needs to be $5000.00. Our software (DATAIR) suggests $500 to each HCE (all maxed out). Are we allowed to refund the entire $5,000 to a signle HCE if that's what the company & individual wants? (There is an owner & wife who both maxed out - Wife is willing to take the full $5,000 refund).

Has anyone ever heard of a one-time election to change the form of distribution in a DB plan after payments have already commenced (i.e., changing from a J&SA to a single life annuity)? The plan provision allowing for this requires spousal consent and proof of good health of the participant (among other requirements). Is this type of provision allowed under the Code? I cannot find anything stating that it is not allowed, but the actuary and I have never seen anything like this before. Any comments or help in locating guidance one way or the other is greatly appreciated.

I know the automatic cash out and rollover rules get confusing, and to make matters worse, I just studied for and passed ERPA-SEE Part II, so now I have just enough knowledge.

Anyway, we have 401(k) with auto rollover limit at $5,000 and a LOT of terminated participants they have not been able to contact. I know participants with over $5,000 must be left in the plan. But my ERPA studies said that the automatic rollover can only be done before the later of age 62 or NRA (NRA per plan is 65). We have a couple participants who are already age 65.

But then the Adoption Agreement says something about involuntary cash-out above $5,000 is deferred until required beginning date.

I would appreciate any enlightenment that can be provided on the topic. Thanks.

This plan's eligiblity is 1000 hours, age 21, 1 YOS. The Eligibility Computation Period uses the Hours of Service Method, a 12 consecutive month period beginning with an Employee's Employment Commencement Date and each anniversary thereof. It does not switch to the plan year as do all of my other plans. An employee is hired 6/1/2005, terminates 6/1/2007. He never works 1000 hours and does not enter the plan. He rehires on 4/8/2011. What do I use for his anniversary date to determine if he has met the 1000 hour requirement? His original hire date of 6/1 or the most recent hire date of 4/8?

Assume neither buyer nor any member of buyer's controlled group sponsors group health coverage. Buyer enters into a transaction with seller such that, under the COBRA rules, buyer is responsible to offer COBRA to M&A qualifying beneficiaries. Is buyer required to purchase group health coverage in order to offer COBRA to M&A qualifying beneficiaries?

Thanks, in advance, for any help.