I am trying to find the 402(g) limits for TSAs for 1990-1998. Can someone please list what the limit was for each of these years. I believe that 1998 was also $10,000 and that 96-97 were $9,500; however, I need to verify this, as well as to get previous years.

Thanks for your help!

The short answer is yes, you can have two profit sharing plans covering the same employees. One sometimes sees a variation of this to sort of get around the 401(a)(17) on compensation which applies to each plan.

However, having two 401(k) plans (or qualified cash or deferred arrangements within profit sharing plans, to be technically precise) leads to some rather punitive testing results. HCE deferrals to both plans are counted in each plan's 401(k) but only NHCE deferrals to that particular plan counts against that plan's test. There's a parallel rule for 401(m) testing I believe.

I think what you want is to freeze one plan and start up a new plan. As long as this occurs at the same time as the plan year end, the above rule won't mess up your plans.

According to Announcement 94-101, a plan is not permitted to have a "catch- all" hardship category. One plan document I've seen lists "Other heavy financial need of the participant or the participant’s spouse or dependents" as a hardship category. Is this an impermissible provision? If so, is it enough to simply never use this provision?

How does a payor employer repor retirement payments of a Nonqualified Retirement Plan to a payee? Would the employer use a 1099 R, 1099 MISC, W-2 or something completely different? Thanks.

In April of this year i tossed $2K into my Roth IRA (one account) for 1999. This money sat for a couple months waiting on a limit order (missed by 1/16...stock was 3 5/16, now at 10...d'oh). I then used $1850 of this to buy a stock which is worth around $900.

Is there any way i can recharacterize this year's contribution as a traditional IRA, and then roll it over into a Roth thereby getting a tax deduction of ~$950 on my investment ineptitude?

If so, how would i figure out the interest earnings on this year's contribution, keeping in mind that my previous IRA contributions are in the same account as my '99 contribution?

In a takeover situation, how would you "withdraw" a contribution that should have been made to the qualified PS Plan and was by error deposited in an inactive SEP? This was an accounting error, essentially, due to confusion on accounts. Deposit was made in 1997 for a 7/31/97 Plan Year. Thanks for all input...

First,I understand that a DB sponsor must pay a premium to PBGC... how is this determined?

Second,I also understand the defined benefit contribution made for an older employee can be greater compared to someone younger becuase of the time left until retirement, but is there anyway to adjust if the younger person is the owner or a HCE.

Thanks for any input,

Jason

In looking through our back pages of the prototype,it actually indicates that "loans shall not be granted to any Participant that provides for a repayment period extending beyond such Participant's Normal Retirement Date". Is that something just in our prototype, or is it part of the regs?

Anyone? Thanks!

I would assume the reason for going this route is you would run inton problems with the 15% limit in the profit sharing plan.

Another alternative (although you would incur the expense of a second plan)

is to have a money purchase at 3% (or more) covers top heavy, and then the profit sharing by class. then you probably wouldn't need to amen, so you save something there.

sorry, no experience with IRS in regards to amending often.

no experience with it except looking at their sample download, but FlexSoft does DB as well as cross tested.

4/1/2000 is the new required beginning date. It is the 4/1 following separation from service, which may catch some sponsors by surprise if they are slow in getting their year end census to their recordkeeper.

My company is starting a 401k plan. We currently have a Profit Sharing Plan, and that money is all going into that plan, I don't want to do that, our 401k Plan is a Lord, Abbett Mutual Fund. and I want to gradually put that money into the plan on a per month basis not in one lump sum. What if the stock market is not doing well, then the initial investment is going to be less that what it started out to be. Do I have that right to ask for my money from the Profit Sharing Plan? I am 100% vested in that plan, since they are closing it out. I don't think my company has that right to do that without my okay.

How are ESOP stock evaluated? My boss who is the plan administrator said tht it is determined by the area of business that we are in (banks) and that what other banks our size are worth or sold for goes into determining our stock value. I thought it what your own bank's profits are and not what other banks are. we are a closely held company.

Does an ESOP have an obligation to notify terminated employees when they are eligible for distributions, and are there any consequences for their failure to do so? Distributions from my ESOP account should have begun in 1997, but I did not learn of this until this year (previous requests for distributions were denied by my former employer who stated that I wouldn't be eligible until my normal retirement age which I now know is not true). The value of the company's stock has gone down since 1996. If the distribution had begun in 1997, presumably I would have had a reasonable return in investment income over this period instead of losing money. Can they begin the distribution now, payable in six installments, without any obligation to reimburse me for the loss I incurred by their failure to begin the distribution in 1997?

Is a terminating plan required to offer an immediate annuity to a participant with a pvab greater than $5,000 who is, for ex., 30 years old? NRA is 65 and ERA is 55/10YOS.

Does anyone see any problems with an employer paying the COBRA premiums to an insurer for some terminated employees and not others.

Could this actually be construed as creating a new plan with additional COBRA rights? I would think that as long as the COBRA notice was given, no benefits need be offered after the 18 months no matter who pays the premium.

Company A acquires Company B in 1999. Company B maintains a SARSEP. A SEP has to cover all employees of the controlled group, but Company A has more than 25 employees and does not want to have any SEP.

The SARSEP rules say Company B is ineligible to have a SARSEP after 1999. But if Company A is not adopting the SARSEP, does it have to be shut down immediately to avoid violating the basic rule that it must cover all employees in the controlled group? Is there any grace period like that for SIMPLE plans in 408(p)(10) or qualified plans in 410(B)(6)? Or can Company B still make an employer contribution to the SARSEP for the period in 1999 before it was acquired?

DOES A PLAN DOCUMENT NEED TO BE DRAFTED IN ORDER TO ALLOW FOR THIS BENEFIT TO BE OFFERED? IT MY UNDERSTANDING THAT ONLY A BOARD RESOLUTION AND POLICY/PROCEDURES NEED TO BE IN WRITING TO PROPERLY IMPLEMENT THIS BENEFIT OPTION. I KNOW IT CANNOT BE PART OF A 125 PLAN.

THOUGHTS?

Is a governmental plan subject to the nondiscrimination requirements of Code section 117(d)(3)? Code section 117(d)(3) references 414(q), which is of limited applicability to governmental plans due to the inapplicability of 401(a)(4) to most governmental plans under TRA 97. Thanks.

Can an employer contibute both a matching 3% and a non-elective 2% in the same year for his simple plan.