At the risk of looking foolish, this will probably fall under the category of "New Things I Learned Today," but I am a little confused. The defined benefit prototype plan document that we use has the following language concerning actuarial equivalence and lump sum payments:
"...for purposes of determining the amount of a distribution payable [in the form of a lump sum], if it produces a greater benefit then Actuarial Equivalence will be determined on the basis of the applicable mortality table and applicable interest rate..." (Emphasis added)
Please excuse my lack of understanding, but any clarification offered would be greatly appreciated.