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Everything posted by CuseFan
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Correcting a plan limit failure with Roth + pre-tax ED
CuseFan replied to roy819's topic in 401(k) Plans
Bigger picture questions: Why in this day and age would a plan have a 10% deferral limit? Was this an HCE? If not, could plan be amended retroactively to allow for that extra 2% deferral? -
If the custodian of the current brokerage account also handles IRAs, and as @Peter Gulia said if the document allows (if it doesn't you can amend), then you may be able to do in-kind distribution by simple transfer of the account from plan to IRA. Even so, a market value of the distribution and rollover will need to be determined and reported on a 1099R.
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Yes, if someone gets employer contributions in a year that are equal to their 415(c) limit of the lesser of 100% of pay or $72,000, then any and all deferrals would be deemed catch-up contributions. In your example, the person could actually have had compensation of $72,000, an employer contribution of $72,000, and $8,000 in catch-up contributions.
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Hoping that Mike Johnson doesn't see his shadow and give us 6 weeks of government shutdown!
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Those rules are very particular, and "I thought I could deduct but my accountant told me no" (or some other facsimile) I don't think qualifies as a mistake of fact. CB contributions - minimum required and maximum deductible - should have been calculated by a knowledgeable actuary. Following bad advice, ignoring good advice, or not getting advice is not a mistake of fact. Mistake of fact is like having the actuarial calculations based on materially incorrect data such that the contribution range is materially incorrect. Maybe that is the case here, but you don't provide details. If so, and a refund was requested from the trustee within a year of the contribution then there could be actionable cause, in which case I'd recommend lawyering up and following through on the litigation threat as it seems the seller has been ghosted. Note the amount available for return is limited to the excess over what could have been contributed had the mistake leading to the error not occurred. Disallowance of deduction is specific to IRS action and you don't mention that as a relevant event here.
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Can Husband / Wife with separate businesses (no employees) set up 1 plan
CuseFan replied to DDB BN's topic in 401(k) Plans
Absolutely perfect! -
Can Husband / Wife with separate businesses (no employees) set up 1 plan
CuseFan replied to DDB BN's topic in 401(k) Plans
They are likely a control group so one plan with each LLC adopting should be fine. Even if not a CG they could do that as a multiple employer plan. However, if the desire is to use a vendor's solo-k product, need to make sure it accommodates whatever structure/LLC relationship you have. -
Ordinarily, the 5-year rule is the 12/31 of the year containing the 5th anniversary of the participant's death. If death was x/x/2020 then 5th anniversary is x/x/2025 and entire benefit should have been distributed by 12/31/2025. However, and this comes from the IRS website where you can essentially treat 2020 as if it never existed. The excerpt below says inherited IRAs but earlier language also refers to retirement plans and I can't see them saying 2020 disappears only for IRAs. https://www.irs.gov/newsroom/coronavirus-relief-for-retirement-plans-and-iras Distributions from inherited IRAs are not required in 2020. If you were required to take a distribution within 5 years following the year of the account holder’s death, 2020 does not count toward the 5 years. So, you would essentially have six years, instead of five, to distribute the inherited IRA. Also, if the account holder died in 2019, you would normally be required to begin taking distributions by the end of 2020 to be able to take distributions over your lifetime. Since 2020 does not count, you have until the end of 2021 to begin taking distributions over your lifetime.
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coverage testing two plans in a controlled group
CuseFan replied to AlbanyConsultant's topic in Retirement Plans in General
You've got it. Forget the CG and just think 2 HCEs and 2 NHCEs where you cover 1 of each. Yes, if the covered NHCE leaves then you would need to add the other ER and its NHCE. -
That is my understanding.
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I do not think you can formally state two groups, those employed 2/15/PY+1 and those not, because a person's grouping is not determinable by PYE. Draw a parallel to changing an HCE top-paid group election after PYE, where the result changes a person's status under the plan, which is impermissible. Using individual allocation groups in the document but in practice determining two allocation groups by your desired methodology is the best way to accomplish what they want IMHO and I think that of most others. If said 2/15 fell on a weekend or holiday and/or for whatever reason the plan sponsor wanted to accelerate or delay that date, individual groups compared to hardcoding, even if such was permissible, makes administration accommodating. Just because the document allows for flexibility doesn't mean it needs to be used. Finally, you mention a parent and a lot of subsidiaries all with their own plans with separate RKs and independent testing. Is no one concerned about testing in consideration of the control group?
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Owners Getting Paid via 1099 & Participating in Plan
CuseFan replied to metsfan026's topic in 401(k) Plans
Reasoning? If they want so they can invest in whatever they want versus being limited to the same fund lineup, then you have a BRF discrimination issue. -
Also agree with @justanotheradmin and @Bill Presson. Assuming no coverage and nondiscrimination concerns, I would use the everyone in their own group document provision and then utilize that 2/15 methodology for allocation determinations. What you lose in that is the ability to statutorily exclude from testing those who terminate during the plan year with 500 or fewer hours. I do not think you could write the 2/15 of the following year into the document as your allocation entitlement would not be determinable by the plan year end. I think someone in this forum asked this same question (maybe with different date) within the last year or two, if memory serves.
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Union covered employees (if retirement subject to GFB) and non-union employees are subject to mandatory disaggregation. Furthermore, if you have a plan covering employees in different unions, I believe that each union represented constitutes its own disaggregated "plan" for coverage and nondiscrimination. As @ESOP Guy states, be sure to check the plan documents for proper inclusion or exclusion of union covered employees.
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Owners Getting Paid via 1099 & Participating in Plan
CuseFan replied to metsfan026's topic in 401(k) Plans
Agree with @David D - including the 1099 situation not appearing correct unless something else going on. Are the owners each single member LLCs that own the company and company then pays the LLCs via 1099s. Even so, the LLCs would be either incorporated (C or S) or not (sole prop) and pay their owners via W2 or K1, respectively. Then (I think) the LLCs are disregarded entities and their earned income should count for 401k plan. If that's not the case then that whole 1099 situation is wrong IMHO - but I'm not an accountant. -
The 80/120 rule only applies with respect to which 5500 form a plan may file, nothing else that I know of.
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New Career Path into Retirement Plans
CuseFan replied to HarleyBabe's topic in Retirement Plans in General
Paul I is spot on with everything. Remote or hybrid arrangement with zero industry experience, not going to happen. My guess is that an employer would want at least 2-3 years of direct on-site experience and supervision of a new hire w/o prior experience before entertaining a remote or hybrid arrangement. My experience is that you learn and retain more with the direct supervision, knowledge sharing, and professional discussions you get from being in an office, not to mention relationship building. From homicide detective to 401(k) administration? I'm sure she has her reasons and best of luck to her. Paul I provided great suggestions. -
If the MPPP component is currently active then an advance 204h notice is required prior to such component being frozen/terminated. Only affected participants (active in the MPPP component) need get notice. If the MPPP component is not active as it was frozen previously, for which a 204h would have been required at that time, terminating the plan with that component does not trigger another 204h requirement. We see this all the time in DB world - issue 204h notice when plan is frozen, not again at termination (but is referenced in the Notice of Intent to Terminated - "NOIT").
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Agree with your suggested solution but also strongly suggest some formal legal guidance which could also ascertain risk. I would not "cheap out" given the size of the assets. Other key thoughts: who made the mistake, when did it occur, when was it discovered, and how soon thereafter was it corrected? Was this one big errant transfer or a series of errant transfers? Were they caused by honest clerical errors or was someone asleep at the wheel not paying attention. Was this the plan sponsor's doing or a third party? Documenting all that and fixing ASAP at a minimum is what I would suggest - put the plans where they'd be had the mistake(s) not occurred. Maybe a VFCP filing would be appropriate. My only formal advice here - get qualified legal guidance.
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What is the bonus practice of the employer? Even if allowed in form via a current amendment, you should verify that excluding bonuses would not result in a discriminatory definition. For example, if bonuses are across the board but HCEs are already at or near the 401(a)(17) maximum compensation such that little to none of their bonuses are excluded in practice, that could very well prove discriminatory.
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I think Peter is correct and I think income tax withholding on such is legally required. I also wonder then, since the income tax withholding amount is also taxable income, doesn't that require withholding necessitating a circular calculation? That circular calculation yields $215.77 in income tax withholding that is equal to 22% of $980.77 ($765 + 215.77). However, I wouldn't split hairs on that and would accept whatever the payroll system delivered, provided it was at least Peter's details above. Of course, if there is mandatory state income tax withholding then all this must be adjusted for that as well.
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Last date to change SH Match to SH Nonelective
CuseFan replied to ConnieStorer's topic in 401(k) Plans
True, but if the employer is locked in for gateway purposes, especially adding a CBP to the testing, discontinuing any SHNE isn't likely in the cards. -
Agree with Effen, this isn't new and it hasn't gone away and there never is or was an exception for plans without NHCEs. What is interesting is that you say this is an IDP and that provision has been in the plan all along unless I misunderstood and that was added with CB conversion. So presumably they have received an IRS determination letter, probably two, with that anomaly of a disqualifying provision.
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As we all try to navigate the year-end craziness and balance life with family and friends, I just wanted to wish everyone a safe, relaxing and enjoyable holiday season!
