I just skimmed Hopkins and believe it clearly correct. Why did QDROphile think it was a "crock"? Unless I misread Hopkins, ex-wife was awarded alimony upon divorce but no interest in pension of husband. Thereafter, husband terminated employment AND started receiving his pension in the form of a JSA with current wife. Husband fell well behind on alimony payments. Ex-wife obtained additional court order (QDRO-esq) which allowed her to be assigned a portion of stream of payments to ex-husband in order to pay down alimony deficit AND the duty of ATT to reform the JSA to make her the beneficiary of a JSA. Of course, unless she was born the same day as the new wife, such a reformation would make all the prior payments inconsistent with the reformed JSA. Ex-wife was ultimately allowed portion of stream of payments to ex-husband but NOT allowed to become ex-post-facto JSA beneficiary. IMHO, perfect result.
To FMSINC: In Hopkins, court uses "retirement" to mean annuity has started. Hopkins is clearly inconsistent with any argument that quitting a job means prior spouse must enjoy JSA. Otherwise, Hopkins ex-wife would have won both halves of her request. Any contrary thoughts appreciated. Did I misread Hopkins?