Guest pc pete Posted September 5, 2001 Posted September 5, 2001 Can an employer set up a plan where there is a medical opt out provision that only salaried employees can take advantage of?
KIP KRAUS Posted September 6, 2001 Posted September 6, 2001 Let me ask you a question about your question. In most cases the objective of the employer is to save money by offering an opt-out program. Why would the employer only want to offer it to salaried employees if they are in the same plan as hourly employees?
Guest pc pete Posted September 7, 2001 Posted September 7, 2001 The employer currently does not pay anything to those who waive coverage and is hoping to present this as a benefit but only to salaried employees.
GBurns Posted September 8, 2001 Posted September 8, 2001 A quick answer is No, they are in the same plan. But you still did not answer the valid question that Kip asked. George D. Burns Cost Reduction Strategies Burns and Associates, Inc www.costreductionstrategies.com(under construction) www.employeebenefitsstrategies.com(under construction)
Guest pc pete Posted September 10, 2001 Posted September 10, 2001 If the question is why they want to offer it to only salaried employees, it is b/c they are more concerned with salaried employee retention.
GBurns Posted September 15, 2001 Posted September 15, 2001 Then if you offer it to salaried only you face a possible discrimination issue and an availabilty issue. George D. Burns Cost Reduction Strategies Burns and Associates, Inc www.costreductionstrategies.com(under construction) www.employeebenefitsstrategies.com(under construction)
Scott Posted December 11, 2001 Posted December 11, 2001 GBurns, Is your statement about discrimination based on an assumption that this is a self-insured plan, or would there be a discrimination issue even if the plan were fully insured? What statute prohibits discrimination in an opt-out payment?
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