FJR Posted October 4, 2001 Posted October 4, 2001 Just a refresher. If you have a 401(k) safe harbor plan with 1 year(1000 hrs) and 21 for eligibility and later decide to amend for immediate eligibility to defer and keep the 1 year for safe harbor and the plan is top heavy. The result would be to still give the safe harbor to those that satisfy the 1 year eligibility, but also give the immediates a top heavy min. contribution? Any suggestions
Tom Poje Posted October 4, 2001 Posted October 4, 2001 I think it depends on if there are other contributions - at least begining in 2002. under section 613 Modification of top-heavy rules (d)definition of top-heavy plan .........the term 'top-heavy plan' shall NOT include a plan which consists SOLELY of - (i) a cash or deferred arrangement which eets the requirements of section 401(k)(12), and (ii) matching contributions with respect to which the requirements of section 401(m)(11) are met. I still read that statement to say if you make other contributions, you blow the free ride on top-heavy. In other words, if you only make safe harbor contributions the plan really isn't top heavy! in an earlier post someone indicated that they had approval language on a plan that had immediate deferral eligiblity but 1 year wait for ps (including top heavy). I have never seen that before, the ERISA Outline Book indicates you have to give top heavy to all as well, but who knows what you might get approved.
FJR Posted October 5, 2001 Author Posted October 5, 2001 Tom, so what you are saying is that in 2002 the rules change when you have a top heavy plan with 2 different eligibility definitions. Meaning under the old rule you would have to contribute at least a top heavy minimum to those who come in immediately. Starting in 2002 having an immediate eligibility for the 401(k) cont. and 1 year wait for 3% safe harbor, you would not owe a TH contribution for the immediates?
Tom Poje Posted October 5, 2001 Posted October 5, 2001 that is my understanding of the rules. again, I don't think it is that the rules changed in regard to 'eligibility', but rather that the rules simply state that a safe harbor plan is a plan that is not top heavy even if the owner has 99% of the assets. in fact, if the safe harbor method was a match rather than the 3% nonelective, and no NHCE deferred then the HCE would be the only one who received contributions in that year. and again, I stress the word 'solely'. (in regards to making other possible contributions)In all the articles I have read on top heavy and safe harbor, I have yet to see that mentioned, but I don't see any other way to read it.
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