Guest sherryc Posted August 28, 2002 Posted August 28, 2002 A self-employed taxpayer with no employees established a SIMPLE plan in 2001. He has made a small contribution in 2002. However, he can contribute much more in 2002 to a 401(k) plan. A taxpayer cannot have both a SIMPLE plan and another retirement plan in the same year. But why wouldn't this work: Establish a 401(k) plan for 2002. This makes the SIMPLE plan invalid; therefore, he would have to take a distribution of all 2002 contibutions to the SIMPLE. FYI, taxpayer is over 59 1/2 . He can establish a single 401(k) plan with Oppenheimer at a cost of $15 per year. There is no 5500 reporting required until the asset value reaches $100,000. (I mention these so they will not be response issues.) Thanks Sherry
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