Guest Gary A. Luing Posted November 15, 2002 Posted November 15, 2002 Sole practitioner has retired so little or no income on Sched C. DB plan is underfunded just before termination, so $80,000 is required to fund but is not deductible under 404(a)(8) because of little income. Is the non-deductible amount carried forward, or does it become a basis in the assets in the trust, or is it lost forever?
david rigby Posted November 16, 2002 Posted November 16, 2002 This does not smell right. Is the sole practioner the only participant in the plan? I thought a sponsor/owner/HCE could permanently waive whatever benefits are necessary to avoid the contribution in the year of plan termination. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Guest Gary A. Luing Posted November 18, 2002 Posted November 18, 2002 Yes, the sole practitioner is sole participant. Do you have the authority for your surmise--such as Code section or Reg or anything to hang the hat on? Thanks.
mwyatt Posted November 18, 2002 Posted November 18, 2002 He could waive (see several past discussions) portion of benefit necessary to bring liabilities equal to assets. The detail that is not provided here is where the $80,000 comes from: is this the amount of asset shortfall after all required contributions under IRC 412 have been made, or is part or all of this amount representing the final contribution developed by the 412 valuation covering the year of termination? IRS has never allowed you to waive a funding deficiency.
Guest Gary A. Luing Posted November 18, 2002 Posted November 18, 2002 The $80,000 represents the final contribution under the 412 valuation for the year of termination.
mbozek Posted November 18, 2002 Posted November 18, 2002 You need to look in the IRS termination guidelines for the procedure for waiving/ deferring the amount of the accrued benefit attributable to the shortfall. mjb
David Posted November 18, 2002 Posted November 18, 2002 My experience with the IRS has been in agreement with mwyatt, that you cannot waive benefits for 412 purposes. I am not aware of an execption for the year of plan termination. When you do the waiver for the plan termination my experience has been that the IRS requires the waiver to read "waiver of distributable assets" rather than a "waiver of accrued benefit".
david rigby Posted November 18, 2002 Posted November 18, 2002 See if these help: http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=16104 http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=5466 I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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