Guest mjakel Posted December 17, 2002 Posted December 17, 2002 In a 401(k) plan, where all the NHC have chosen not to contribute so their ADP = 0%, what is the maximum ADP the HC can have using current year testing?
R. Butler Posted December 17, 2002 Posted December 17, 2002 0%, unless the HCE is over 50 and then he could do the catch up contribuiton.
R. Butler Posted December 17, 2002 Posted December 17, 2002 My prior post assumes this is just a vanilla 401(k), no ADP/ACP safe provisions or SIMPLE provisions.
MWeddell Posted December 17, 2002 Posted December 17, 2002 I agree with the above. Let's add to the list of assumptions that this was not the first plan year in which the plan had a 401(k) arrangement and that the plan's ADP test is performed using the current year method.
austin3515 Posted December 19, 2002 Posted December 19, 2002 IS that because the limit is the lesser of ADP of NHCE's plus 2 or 2x the ADP of NHCE's? I guess I was thinking it would be 2%? LEt's say there were 100 NHE's deferring 0%. Would that indicate that the plan was not effectively available to the employees? Would that cause a separate problem? Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
R. Butler Posted December 20, 2002 Posted December 20, 2002 austin3515, "IS that because the limit is the lesser of ADP of NHCE's plus 2 or 2x the ADP of NHCE's?" -- Yes I don't necessarily know the reasons behind the ADP test, I just know how it works.
austin3515 Posted December 20, 2002 Posted December 20, 2002 Reason? IF you tried to find reason behind any of this stuff it would be a life long unsuccessful mission. My question was on the mechanics, and your answer was exactly what I was looking for! Thanks Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
Guest yukon Posted December 20, 2002 Posted December 20, 2002 Why not convert it to a Safe Harbor plan with the Match formula? Then the NHCE ADP doesn't matter, right? And if no NHCEs decide to start contributing, then there is no increased employer cost.
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