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Guest amybu99
Posted

I have a participant in a 401(k) plan who reached age 70 1/2 on 8/5/02. The plan year ends on 11/30/02. The participant was a 5% owner until 7/1/02, after which he no longer owned any portion of the company. Am I to assume that since he was a 5% owner at least one day during the calendar year in which he turned age 70 1/2 that he is to be considered a 5% owner to determine his required beginning date? I can only find material that addresses a change in ownership after the person reaches age 70 1/2, not before.

Any help is greatly appreciated.

Thanks!

Guest greggi39
Posted

The ERISA OUTLINE book states that you look at ownership in the plan year which ends in the calander year in which the individual reaches age 70.5. (page 6.191 cd-rom)

Guest amybu99
Posted

The calendar year in question is 2002. However, the participant is a 5% owner at the beginning of the year and not a 5% owner at the end of the plan year. Is the participant considered a 5% owner for the entire year if he was a 5% owner at any time during the year?

Guest greggi39
Posted

it should be as of any day of the year, i believe you use the 416i definition

Posted

Under IRS proposed regs 1.409(a)-1 Q/A B-2 (d), a 5% owner is determined under the rules of IRC 416 as of the plan year he attains age 66 1/2, regardless of whether he/she ceases to own more than 5% of the employer in a subsequent year. You should confirm whether this provison is retained in the final regs.

mjb

Posted

The final regs look at the plan year ending in the calendar year in which the employee turns 70-1/2. Presumably, 5% ownership at any time during that plan year triggers RMD, because it triggers key-employee status under the top-heavy regulations. 1.416-1 T-12.

The constructive ownership rules of section 318 also apply. Stock owned by your employee's family, controlled entities, etc. would be attributed to your employee. If this is a family business, then your employee is a 5% owner either way.

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