Guest amm19 Posted January 27, 2003 Posted January 27, 2003 If a plan satisfies the 410(B) coverage test, will it also be deemed to pass the 404(a)(4) non-discrimination test requirements for contributions? Or must further testing be done with each rate group?
Mike Preston Posted January 27, 2003 Posted January 27, 2003 Did you intend to post this under 401(k) Plans? What type of plan do you have?
david rigby Posted January 27, 2003 Posted January 27, 2003 More generally, no, passing 410(B) does not mean that you pass 401(a)(4). But, perhaps you have additional details to share. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Mike Preston Posted January 28, 2003 Posted January 28, 2003 Even more generally (g), yes, if the plan's formula (or formulas) satisfy the rules such that it (or they) are described as "safe-harbor" formulas under the regulations. What kind of plan do you have? What types of contributions are made? What are the formulas used to determine the allocation of the contributions?
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