Guest hpaine Posted February 6, 2003 Posted February 6, 2003 Can an owner, who no longer works for the company but is receiving W-2 wages, take a distribution from his 401(k) account? I was under the assumption that if an employee received W-2 wages from a company, regardless if they actually work or not, that they are still considered "employed" thus cannot satisfy the requirements for a distribution. Thanks!
Guest RBeck Posted February 6, 2003 Posted February 6, 2003 W-2 wages and no longer working for the company? I'd like that kind of job! no distribution, IMHO.
mbozek Posted February 9, 2003 Posted February 9, 2003 What kind of w-2 wages is he receiving? Did the owner agree to withdraw / terminate from the company which would entitle him to severance/termination payments? Employees can be paid wages under a severance agreement after they terminate employment which are subject to income tax withholding. I recently negotiated such an agreement for a terminated employee who will receive 18 months of severance pay, cobra benefits and can take an immediate lump sum distribution from the 401(K) plan because he is terminated from the employer. I think you need to review the terms of the owner's payment with the company's accountant. mjb
Guest RBeck Posted February 10, 2003 Posted February 10, 2003 good point. I'd forgotten that severance pay can be W-2 comp.
Scuba 401 Posted February 18, 2003 Posted February 18, 2003 does the plan allow in-service distributions?
E as in ERISA Posted February 19, 2003 Posted February 19, 2003 Deferred compensation is generally W-2 wages.
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