Guest KD40 Posted February 20, 2003 Posted February 20, 2003 It is my understanding that if a participant has a term date of 12/31/2002 for a 12/31/2002 plan year end, they are looked at as being there on the last day of the plan year and would be entitled to any kind of employer allocation. That is assuming all other requirements are met and if the client has elected to exclude ee's due to the last day rulle. Can someone please clarify this?
Archimage Posted February 20, 2003 Posted February 20, 2003 There is no federal guidance on this that I am aware of. This is a matter of interpretation by the plan administrator. In my personal opinion, the participant should get the contribution if they work any part of the last day of the plan year.
austin3515 Posted February 20, 2003 Posted February 20, 2003 I agree. Remember, its worded "employed on the last day." If they received a paycheck for work on 12/31, they're employed in my eyes. Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
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