Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted April 24, 2003 Posted April 24, 2003 The 50% owner of the corporation that sponsors a 401(k) plan takes an in-service distribution of 401(k) source dollars without any sort of forms and contrary to the terms of the document. He is about 45 years old. Obviously, this is a no-no for many reasons, so does anyone know if there is some specific guidance regarding correcting this problem? Self-correction would be preferred. I tried reviewing Rev Proc. 2002-47, but didn't locate anything. If no specific guidance is available, I am taking opinions on how to correct this. "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
QDROphile Posted April 25, 2003 Posted April 25, 2003 I am not surprised that you did not find a section that covers in-service withdrawals by 45 year-old 50% owners, but the Rev. Proc. states principles of correction and does cover improper distributions. If there were specific guidance, I would not expect to find it anywhere but the Rev. Proc., unless you are looking for unofficial guidance, like in the Benefitslink Q&A column. You should also consider whether a breach of fiduciary duty or prohibited transaction occurred.
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