Guest Jenn Posted May 6, 2003 Posted May 6, 2003 A Son-In-Law to the owner is employed, he makes approx. $60,000 annually. Is he considered to be highly compensated because he is now related to the owner due to marriage?
R. Butler Posted May 6, 2003 Posted May 6, 2003 There is no attribution from the father-in-law to the Son-in-law.
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