Guest koolkidd Posted June 19, 2003 Posted June 19, 2003 Can anyone think of any reasons that company match paid by a plan sponsor to a qualified plan before 1990 would need to be held in a separate bucket than match paid after 1990? I am not seeing any reason for the distinction in the plan document and am not aware of any regulatory reasons. Please help!
Jon Chambers Posted June 19, 2003 Posted June 19, 2003 How about pre-1990 offered J&S option, post doesn't? There are probably many other possible reasons relating to distribution options, or other reasons. Jon C. Chambers Schultz Collins Lawson Chambers, Inc. Investment Consultants
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