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Guest cease
Posted

Here are the specifics to the best of knowledge. Can you help?

"A" company maintains a 401(k) plan with a calendar plan year

"A" company acquires "B" company in a 100% stock purchase on 09/30.

"B" company maintains a 401(k) plan.

"A" company directly transfers assets of "B" company to the "A" company 401(k) on 10/01.

For ADP testing purposes, how are "B" company employees treated:

1. For the period 01/01 - 09/30

2. For the period 10/01 - 12/31

I know that there is a plan termination section on the message board, but there doesn't seem to be the same amount of activity. If any additional information is needed, please let me know. I greatly appreciate any responses. Thanks

Posted

Just for clarity

- Do both plans use a calendar plan year?

- The reference to "transfer assets" is a bit troubling. Does that mean that the plans were merged on 10/01?

I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.

Guest cease
Posted

The answers to both of your questions is yes. Plan years are both calendar year. Asset transfer means that the "B" plan was merged into the "A" plan.

I used the word direct transfer to illustrate the fact that the "A" company is accepting the transfer of assets and liabilities of the "B" plan.

Guest cease
Posted

Correction to the question below - I just learned more information and now I need to ask different questions:

Company "A" becomes a stand alone company on 09/30/02 when Company "X" spins off company "A". Employees in company "A" particpated in company "X" 401(k) plan.

Company "A" established a 401(k) plan on 10/01/02 and are running a short plan year 10/01/02 - 12/31/02.

Also on 09/30/02, company "A" acquired company "B" through a 100% stock purchase. Prior to 09/30/02, company "B" maintained a 401(k) plan and merged assets into company "A" 401(k) on 10/01/02.

As of 10/01/02, company "A" plan participants are those that participated in company "X" and company "B" plans. Assets were directly transferred and all participants were 100% vested. Company "A" plan document recognizes these merged plans. Company "A" plan uses prior year NHCE ADP for testing.

Am I right to assume the following?

1. That Plan "A" is a successor plan and is not eligible for "first plan year" treatment (i.e. 3% NHCE rule)?

2. To determine the ADP of NHCEs for SPY 10/01/02 - 12/31/02, take the weighted average of NHCEs ADP from predecessor plans (would this be for period 01/01/02 - 09/30/02, or 10/01/01 - 09/30/02)?

3. To determine HCE for SPY 10/01/02 - 12/31/02, look at compensation earned from 10/01/01 - 09/30/02 for those employees that are in company "A" plan as of 10/01/02?

Again, I this is all the information I have. Thank you form your patience as I try to get the questions out.

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