Guest KD40 Posted June 24, 2003 Posted June 24, 2003 Can someone answer the below question regarding RMD's? A father works at a company in which he has no ownership, but his sons do, and they are greater than 5% owners. The father is 75 years of age and is still a full-time employee. Is he required to take a RMD payment or can he delay this payment till he terms? Was uncertain if the family attribution rules related to RMD payments.
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted June 24, 2003 Posted June 24, 2003 The 318 attribution rules apply and the father is considered owning the sons' shares. Thus, he must take RMD's. "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
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