Moe Howard Posted July 14, 2003 Posted July 14, 2003 Employer has established a 401(k) plan. Employer tells all participants that they can only defer 12%, and that he will match no more than 5%. An employee gross salary is $50,000 per year. He wants to defer 24% ...( $50,000 x24% = $12,000). But employer tells him that the plan document/ adoption agreement says that no more than 12% can be deferred. Employee thinks that the new tax law (egtrra) allows him to defer up to 100% per year, as long as he defers no more than $12,000. Who is correct ? (The employer or the employee).
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted July 14, 2003 Posted July 14, 2003 The employer is correct as long as the plan document is in accordance with what he is saying. A plan can limit deferrals to any level. The EGTRRA changes simply represent the maximum allowable amount that can be deferred. "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
RCK Posted July 14, 2003 Posted July 14, 2003 Blinky the 3-eyed fish is of course right. It seems to me that the logical of the employee's position is that he should be allowed to defer $12,000 even if the employer did not offer a 401(k) plan--clearly a non-sensical result. RCK
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