smm Posted September 24, 2003 Posted September 24, 2003 Sponsor of a small defined benefit plan wants to amend the plan to allow retirees in pay status to elect another optional method of distribution, provided that all necessary spousal consents are obtained. Does anyone perceive any problems with this proposed change?
david rigby Posted September 24, 2003 Posted September 24, 2003 I think the plan can be amended to do this. However, many actuaries (me included) would describe this as the opposite of common sense. It is the classic case of the “anti-selection”, where the participant has new information that was not available at the earlier date of retirement. The most likely scenario is that a retiree has either elected (1) a J&S and the spouse died first, or (2) the retiree thinks his life expectancy will be less than average and wants to elect a lump sum. If the plan is amended to add this option, expect a net increase in the overall cost of the plan. Also, be careful of discrimination problems. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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