jane123 Posted September 27, 2003 Posted September 27, 2003 A plan includes both pre-tax and after-tax assets. The participant receives a partial distribution from the plan. How is the distribution taxed? Must the distribution amount be determined on a pro-rata basis, similar to IRAs? Thanks in advance Jane
david rigby Posted September 28, 2003 Posted September 28, 2003 Please define "partial distribution". I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
jane123 Posted September 29, 2003 Author Posted September 29, 2003 Hi Pax, Mary Kay responded to my other post under distributions from retirement plans (sometimes if it is urgent I post on more than one board in the hope of getting a quick response). By partial distribution I mean a distribution off only part of the account balance, as opposed to taking a distribution of the full balance. Thanks again Jane
Brian Gallagher Posted September 29, 2003 Posted September 29, 2003 Did you check the plan documents? Most give deails on the distribution of funds by money source and, how, within each source, how the funds will be liquidated. Remember: two wrongs don't make a right, but three rights make a left.
Fredman Posted September 29, 2003 Posted September 29, 2003 This is a duplicate thread. I'm closing and leaving a link to the other thread to avoid any confusion. Thanks. http://www.benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=21441
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