austin3515 Posted October 1, 2003 Posted October 1, 2003 If a client agrees to pay employees the cost that would have been incurred under a health insurance plan, had the employee elected to be covered by the employer, can that compensation be excluded from compensation for purposes of benefit accruals? I know the definition of compensation can be anything, as long as not discriminatory, but is this something that has been seen by other people? I don't see any direct references in the plan document to such a provision. Thanks Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
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