Guest tintree73 Posted November 25, 2003 Posted November 25, 2003 This may be simple, but let me know if I am not handling this correctly: An LLC1 owns 100% of Corp A - and Corp A owns 100% of LLC B. Also, LLC1 owns 100% of Corp C - and Corp C owns 100% of LLC D. Also, LLC1 is owned 50% by Corp. X and 50% by Corp. Y. LLC B and LLC D each sponsor 401(k) plans - no other entity sponsors a 401(k) plan. This is a controlled group of corporations-right? So-if the 401(k) plans sponsored by LLC B and LLC D are both standardized - we have a problem (because standardized plans must cover all employees of the controlled group) unless the 410(b)(6)© grace period (due to a transaction-per Rev Proc 2000-20) applies? Honestly, the LLC v. Corp distinction is confusing me as well as whether this is a Parent-Subsidiary or a brother/sister issue. Please help! Would the answer be different if LLC1 was owned 42% by Corp W-and Corp W was owned 50% by Corp. X and 50% by Corp. Y?
Just Me Posted November 25, 2003 Posted November 25, 2003 One thing to remember when doing a controlled group analysis is that Brother/Sister groups are very limited - look at §1563(a)(2) and note that it involved ownership by Individuals, Trusts and Estates only. Since what you have are all corporations, the brother/sister rules are in applicable. That being said, it appears to me that you have a Parent/Sub controlled group of all entities EXCEPT X and Y since their ownership is not 80% or greater. You also need to take a look at §415(h) which streches the Parent/Sub controlled group by dropping the percentage to "more than 50%" in lieu of "at least 80%." However, since you indicate EXACTLY 50%, you do not need to test §415 limits by considering X and Y either (you didn't indicate that they had any plans, anyway). Just my humble opinion....
Guest mrilao Posted November 25, 2003 Posted November 25, 2003 Does the analysis change under the parent/subsidiary analysis? It is my understanding that a parent/subsidiary CG exists when a parent owns at least 80% of a subsidiary and at least 80% of each subsidiary is owned by the parent or one of its other subsidiaries. So, in that case, if Corp X and Corp Y own at least 80% of the capital and/or profits of LLC1 (here 50+50=100%), does that make LLC1 a subsidiary member of a parent/subsidiary group. With the brother/sister group - would they have to attribute the stock to the shareholders? I could be way off base on this.
Just Me Posted November 25, 2003 Posted November 25, 2003 Nope. You only "add up" the ownership of multiple entities in a Brother/Sister group, which this fact pattern does not have. (You wouldn't do the 50% + 50% math in a Parent/Sub analaysis.) With respect to the shareholder attribution, greater than 5% shareholders are deemed to own any stock owned by the company of which they are a shareholder. So in the facts we are discussing, it would be important to know if the have any large common shareholders of X and Y, because if we do, then we may have a Brother/Sister group there, combined with the Parent/Sub group below. (The dreaded "combined group.")
Guest tintree73 Posted November 25, 2003 Posted November 25, 2003 So if I understand this correctly, the idea is that in the parent-sub analysis, you would not combine the ownership of the parent entity with another entity - but with regard to the subsidiaries (e.g., as you go down the line from LLC1 to Corp A to Corp B) you would combine ownership in that instance? I know confusing, so here is an example - if Corp M owns 80% of Corps N and P and Corp N then owns 40% of Corp Q as well as Corp P also owning 40% of Corp Q - that would make a total of 80% ownership of Corp Q by Corps N and P and the common ownership would then include a group of Corps M, N, P and Q? In contrast, if Corp L owned 30% of Corps N and P and Corp M owned 50% of Corps N and P - that would not be a parent because you would not add the 50% and 30% together to make the requisite 80%?
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