Guest Cookiemonster Posted December 16, 2003 Posted December 16, 2003 I have a companies 401(k) plan. There currently is no match and no profit sharing contributions. They own a company based outside the United States. That company has a 401(k) plan in Europe. (Or whatever a 401(k) plan is called in Europe). The company currently puts money into the plan in Europe. My main question, is the company discriminating its employees in the U.S.? If so, how can it be corrected? Also, this is a controlled group. Would Top Heavy and 410B need to include the employees in Europe? Let me know your thoughts. Thanks....
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted December 16, 2003 Posted December 16, 2003 Don't these employees in Europe meet the definitions of nonresident aliens? "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
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