Lori Foresz Posted December 23, 2003 Posted December 23, 2003 Hi, Does a former employer have to be related to the current employer in order to credit service with the former employer (for eligibility purposes) under the new employer's plan? I understand that the crediting of past service must not discriminate, but that a 5-year safe harbor rule applies. So, can the owner of a company be granted one year of prior service with his former employer but make all the employees wait 1-year to enter. The answer would seem to be no, but can't find it anywhere. If anyone can help, that would be great. Thanks Lori
WDIK Posted December 23, 2003 Posted December 23, 2003 Does this help? ...but then again, What Do I Know?
Lori Foresz Posted December 23, 2003 Author Posted December 23, 2003 Hi, Yes, it does. However, the conclusion seems to be that it is a gray area. I still need to read 1.401(a)(4)-11(d)(3)(i) to see if that helps as well. Thanks for the link!
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now