Guest hog4you2 Posted March 1, 2004 Posted March 1, 2004 Can anyone tell me why (if ever) you would test a safe harbor match using the 401(a) test when there is no profit sharing contribution? Would there be any purpose? Supposedly the IRS mentioned that "if the match allocation passes under 401(a), no true-up is necessary." Thank you
jquazza Posted March 1, 2004 Posted March 1, 2004 If your document specifies that the match will made on a periodic basis, say by payroll, you don't have to true it up. /JPQ
Guest hog4you2 Posted March 1, 2004 Posted March 1, 2004 This is true. The plan I am talking about is an annual match, but they make periodic deposits, so I need a true up. But more importantly, do you ever have to test a safe harbor match under 401(a)4? thanks, dana
jquazza Posted March 2, 2004 Posted March 2, 2004 401(a)(4) governs the nondiscrimination of plans. For 401(k) & (m), nondiscrimination is demonstrated by the ADP & ACP tests, which you avoid when you're safe harbor. /JPQ
Archimage Posted March 2, 2004 Posted March 2, 2004 I think what the IRS may be referring to is the testing of the benefits, rights, and features under 401(a)(4). However, you are not going to need to test for this unless you really had a funky match formula such as <5 yrs of service gets a 50% match and >5 yrs of service gets a 100% match. For your basic safe harbor match there is no need to test this.
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