k man Posted March 30, 2004 Posted March 30, 2004 I need a second or third opinion. sponsor has a class of equity shareholders that have voting rights but due to a side agreement among the class of shareholders and the majority shareholder, they are not allowed to vote the shares for the next ten years. do you think these shareholders must still be considered owning 1% of the combined voting power under 416?
k man Posted March 30, 2004 Author Posted March 30, 2004 i just read the regs over again and i see that the test is vote or value. thus, i think my guys are key. no need for anyone to answer this thread.
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