Guest mike webb Posted August 3, 1999 Posted August 3, 1999 Is "Includible compensation" for purposes of the 403(B)(2) exclusion allowance limited to the 401(a)(17) compensation cap (currently $160,000)? Example 20 of the updated IRS Examination Guidelines for 403(b)plans indicates that "Compensation" for 415 limit purposes is limited to $160,000, but is seemingly silent with regard to 403(B)(2). ------------------ Mike W.
Guest CVCalhoun Posted August 6, 1999 Posted August 6, 1999 This is a tough one! Under I.R.C. § 403(B)(12)(A)(i), the I.R.C. § 401(a)(17) compensation limit is applied in measuring discrimination. Thus, it would appear that using the larger amount of compensation to calculate the exclusion allowance, even if technically permitted, could easily result in nondiscrimination problems. This would be true even for governmental plans, which although exempt from most of I.R.C. § 403(B)(12)(A)(i) due to I.R.C. § 401(B)(5)(G), are not exempt from I.R.C. § 401(a)(17). However, in looking at a salary-reduction-only plan, nothing appears to require that I.R.C. § 401(a)(17) be followed in measuring compensation for maximum exclusion allowance purposes. ------------------------------ Employee benefits legal resource site [Note: This message has been edited by CVCalhoun]
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