Guest platte1 Posted August 27, 2004 Posted August 27, 2004 I have a situation where an HCE just discovered he has an excess deferral for 2003. He received two W-2's from different employers---but they were related employers. Since we are past 4-15 and evidently can not distribute, would anyone have suggestions on how to handle? Excess is about $300.00. Thank you.
WDIK Posted August 27, 2004 Posted August 27, 2004 http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?s...opic=23094&st=0 ...but then again, What Do I Know?
Guest platte1 Posted August 27, 2004 Posted August 27, 2004 Just a follow up note the employers that this HCE worked for were related---which I think is where the problem comes in. Thank you.
WDIK Posted August 27, 2004 Posted August 27, 2004 The deferral limit under 402(g) is an individual limit, so I think the ramifications of the excess deferrals are the same whether the two employers are related or unrelated. ...but then again, What Do I Know?
E as in ERISA Posted August 27, 2004 Posted August 27, 2004 I disagree. Its my understanding that if they are not related, then its not a plan qualification issue so there is no way to correct after 4/15. But if they are related, then it is a plan qualification issue under 401(a)(30) so you can correct under EPCRS even if its after 4/15. Self correction may be an option for a limited time period.
WDIK Posted August 27, 2004 Posted August 27, 2004 Thanks for setting me straight. I kept picturing two plans, each adopted by one of the related employers. Can I blame this on a long week to save face? ...but then again, What Do I Know?
Tom Poje Posted August 30, 2004 Posted August 30, 2004 Appendix A .04 (Rev Proc 2003-44 [EPCRS] )allows you to self correct, so to say you cant distribute is not quite correct. given the conditions of being related employers, I would assume that means you have to distribute to avoid disqualification
E as in ERISA Posted August 30, 2004 Posted August 30, 2004 If there's no 401(a)(30) violation, then you don't have a plan qualification issue. Appendix A .04 can be used where the 402(g) excess is "in contravention of 401(a)(30)." That only occurs where you have related employers.
Guest platte1 Posted August 30, 2004 Posted August 30, 2004 After reading 2003-44---A.04, it appears as though this added (again, dealing with related employers) the provision that a post 4-15 excess means the dollars are now remvoved from the plan (which previous to 2003-44, I believe the dollars would have stayed in the plan in this scenario---in addition to a SVP situation)---and still would be taxable in 2003 (year of the excess) and when distributed. Again, thank you for all of your comments.
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