austin3515 Posted September 22, 2004 Posted September 22, 2004 Often times temp agencies will provide an employee on a temp-to-hire basis. The idea is, see if you like the employee, if you do, go ahead and hire them. The question is, what is the date of hire and when do you start tracking eligibility? Vesting Service? Is it the day the payroll transfer? Or the date the employee first performs an hour service? Any references to court cases or official documents would be great, although I'm curious to know what everyone's thoughts are. Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
KJohnson Posted September 22, 2004 Posted September 22, 2004 http://benefitslink.com/modperl/qa.cgi?db=..._employer&id=11
TCWalker Posted September 22, 2004 Posted September 22, 2004 ? Vizcaino v. Microsoft Corp, I, II, and III
austin3515 Posted September 22, 2004 Author Posted September 22, 2004 Thank you K Johnson... Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
mbozek Posted September 23, 2004 Posted September 23, 2004 Reading the microsoft cases will only make you dizzy and confused. Check the plan document. Some plans cover prior service as a leased employee for vesting and eligibility but not for benefit accrual purposes. If plan is silent then apply general rule that an individual is eligible to participate if he performs service as a common law employee under the Darden case and is a member of the employees who are eligible to particpate in the plan. Never seen a case where a former leased employee sued for vesting service. Plan admin has discretion to credit employee with eligibility/vesting service even if plan does not explicitly provide for such credit. mjb
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now