Alf Posted September 24, 2004 Posted September 24, 2004 Plan was amended to change what events constitute an event of default, but existing loans were not grandfathered. Now the plan has a default event that is not in the note, so which controls? Although we need the notes to be vaild under state law to be eligible for the statutory PTE, can we argue that the plan controls over the note because of preemption?
QDROphile Posted September 24, 2004 Posted September 24, 2004 The loan is a contract. The plan cannot unilaterally change the terms of the contract to create a new event of default unless the terms of the contract give the plan this extraordinary power.
david rigby Posted September 24, 2004 Posted September 24, 2004 Can the plan administrator issue a loan contract (OK, "issue" is not the correct term) that is in violation of the plan provisions? I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
QDROphile Posted September 25, 2004 Posted September 25, 2004 That was not the question. The answer to your question is affirmative, but then the next natural question will ask about the consequences of the impropriety.
Alf Posted September 27, 2004 Author Posted September 27, 2004 Ok, thanks! If new loan notes are issued that are inconsistent with the terms of the plan, I would be worried about it either being an operational defect problem with the QP or an invalid note under state law which would not qualify for the PT exemption. Our situation is much more straightforward. The plan's provisions were changed and existing notes were not grandfathered. The amendment will be fixed to grandfather outstanding notes. This should have been considered when it was decided to allow loan terms greater than 5 years for primary residences, I guess.
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