Guest DJB Posted October 8, 2004 Posted October 8, 2004 Company has a SEP-IRA for which only the owner has balance because he is the only one eligible (3 year eligibility requirement). Company put in place a 401(k) plan this year (6 month eligibility). Must aggregate for top heavy, correct?. If plan is top heavy, what eligibility is used to determine which non keys would get the top heavy contribution? Thanks.
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