k man Posted October 19, 2004 Posted October 19, 2004 can someone explain how loans in DB plans operate? my main question is how do you account for it if there is no account balance?
WDIK Posted October 19, 2004 Posted October 19, 2004 The amount of the loan available ties in with the participant's vested present value of accrued benefit. The loan itself is considered an asset of the trust in general rather than being "assigned" to that participant's benefit. ...but then again, What Do I Know?
mbozek Posted October 21, 2004 Posted October 21, 2004 Some fids require that the employee pledge assets to secure the loan in case of a default because plan funding would be affected if the loan cannot be paid as opposed to merely reducing the participant's account. mjb
Guest buyertoday Posted October 22, 2004 Posted October 22, 2004 In certain circumstances, our DC plan will allow for a rollover of the acct. balance with the loan from another company's DC plan. Is anyone familiar with allowing a loan rollover from a DB plan into a DC plan? How does this operate? Our recordkeeper has never experienced this either. Thanks.
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