k man Posted November 19, 2004 Posted November 19, 2004 ERISA says a party in interest is, among other things, a 10 percent or more (directly or indirectly in capital or profits) partner or joint venturer with a person that is an owner of 50% of more of the stock of the employer. i am paraphrasing for brevity. our client loaned money to someone who is a 10 percent partner in a completely unrealted venture. when interpreting this provision do they mean ANY venture or the specific business that is the employer?
Kirk Maldonado Posted November 19, 2004 Posted November 19, 2004 If my memory serves me right (and it often doesn't), you may find some useful guidance in DOL Advisory Opinion 75-147. Kirk Maldonado
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted November 19, 2004 Posted November 19, 2004 Kman, it seems from your question that the money was loaned to a completely unrelated person who happens to own 10+% of a completely unrelated entity. If that is right, of course this guy isn't a party-in-interest. "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
k man Posted November 22, 2004 Author Posted November 22, 2004 blinky, that is incorrect. the fiduciary/lender is a 10% partner with the borrower in an unrealted venture. since the lender is a 50% owner of the employer than sponsors the plan i believe that the borrower is a disqualified person.
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