jane123 Posted December 20, 2004 Posted December 20, 2004 Loans cannot be repaid in a balloon repayment insteady of being amortized and not less than quarterly- true. But what about the following scenario. Participant borrowed $10,000. Wants to repay loan in one lump-sum payment at the first quarter ( within 90-days) according to amortization schedule. Is there anything that says a loan cannot be less than for a certain period? I could not find anything in the code that would suggest that this is wrong. Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks Jane
Bird Posted December 21, 2004 Posted December 21, 2004 I don't see any problem with it. I assume it wasn't set up on payroll deduction, and even if it was, as long as prepayments are permitted, it's OK. Ed Snyder
RCK Posted December 21, 2004 Posted December 21, 2004 The generic answer is always "what does the plan say?", but in this case, it should be "what does the promissory note say?" RCK
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