Guest c2ddave Posted February 22, 2005 Posted February 22, 2005 PS Plan effective 1/1/04. 401k effective 7/1/04. Deferrals did not begin until 9/1/04. The client made the 3% SH nonelective with each payroll after the 9/1/04 date. Do we need to true up to comp from 7/1/04? Or can we do it from 9/1/04 and 414s it? Sh notice simply states that the er will contribute 3% of your compesation.
austin3515 Posted February 23, 2005 Posted February 23, 2005 You need to look at the definition of compensation. More likely than not, if the 401(k) provisions are effective 7/1/04, the plan will call for a 3% from 7/1/04. A lot of documents too though will, based on a literal interpretation, call for 3% of full year pay (or at least pay as a participant). That's because it really is a nonelective contribution. Really though, you need read the nuances of the document, so speculation is almost worthless... Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
Guest c2ddave Posted February 24, 2005 Posted February 24, 2005 The compensation of comp for the Safe harbor contribution says that it can exclude comp prior to eligibility to defer. I thought this was general to defer to the notices definition, but the notice doesn't specify any exceptions.
austin3515 Posted February 24, 2005 Posted February 24, 2005 I'd say the conservative thing to do is give them the 3% from the plan document eligibility date (7/1/04). I think you could make a case for excluding pre-9/1/04 compensation, but probably not a very good one. It certainly carries more exposure... Austin Powers, CPA, QPA, ERPA
david rigby Posted February 24, 2005 Posted February 24, 2005 ... it can exclude comp prior to eligibility to defer. Can? Sounds too ambiguous to be a plan definition. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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