Guest justbe Posted February 24, 2005 Posted February 24, 2005 If an employee receives cash for unused vacation is this "COMPENSATION" for purposes of 415©(3)? The regulations 1.415-2(d)(2) - states for "services ACTUALLY RENDERED" does this assume that if you worked to accrue the vacation that your employment was in fact the "service" that was rendered?
Alf Posted February 24, 2005 Posted February 24, 2005 Yes. Plus, I am not sure that your distinction works in this case - isn't unused vacation paid because the employee did actually work instead of take the vaca?
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