Guest jim williams Posted March 30, 2005 Posted March 30, 2005 In a controlled group situation where 2 of the 3 entities adopt a single nonstandardized 401(k) plan, for contribution allocation purposes would you have to consider compensation from all three entities for employees who receive compensation from more than one entity?
Guest jim williams Posted March 30, 2005 Posted March 30, 2005 The document defines Compensation as wages paid by the Employer. It then defines Employer as the employer that is a party to this Plan or any of its affiliates which adopt the Plan. Therefore, I should interpret this to mean any entity of a controlled group that does not adopt the sponsoring employer's plan is not considered an Employer and would not consider compensation from that employer?
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted March 30, 2005 Posted March 30, 2005 That's what it sounds like, but you have the document so you are the best to judge. One thing to keep in mind though is that you have a potential nondiscrimination issue because 414(s) compensation considers compensation from all related entities. "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now