Earl Posted April 1, 2005 Posted April 1, 2005 I have a plan with KEY employee who sold his ownership and is still working for the company. Now he turns 70 1/2. Doesn't want to take Minimum Distributions. Is there a rule that he has to take minimums if he was key within last 5 years? I can't find it but I seem to remember it or something like it... Thanks for any clarification. CBW
WDIK Posted April 4, 2005 Posted April 4, 2005 § 1.401(a)(9)–2, A-2© © For purposes of section 401(a)(9), a 5-percent owner is an employee who is a 5-percent owner (as defined in section 416) with respect to the plan year ending in the calendar year in which the employee attains age 70-1⁄2. ...but then again, What Do I Know?
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted April 4, 2005 Posted April 4, 2005 Although Earl you aren't making up that 5-year rule. I am not sure if EGTRRA changed it, but it did exist at one time. "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
mbozek Posted April 5, 2005 Posted April 5, 2005 the proposed a9 regs applied the 5% rule to any owner with a greater then 5% interest at age 66 or later. mjb
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