Guest moltengater Posted April 22, 2005 Posted April 22, 2005 Why would pre 87 after tax and post 86 after tax money be treated differntly - if at all - for tax purposes?
Bird Posted April 22, 2005 Posted April 22, 2005 Pre-'87 contributions were fairly common since you could do something like 6% of pay and it didn't count against 415, and it didn't have to be in a 401(k) plan. If certain conditions are met, that money can be pulled out and the tax-free basis recovered all at once, instead of ratably as is the general rule. I'm not sure if that answers the "why" part - I'm guessing that rule is an acknowledgement that the amounts are typically fairly small and it would be a nuisance to try to recover it ratably. (But it's hard to imagine Congress worrying about the nuisance factor, given other stuff that we have to do!) Ed Snyder
Appleby Posted April 22, 2005 Posted April 22, 2005 I think one primary difference is that distributions from a qualified plan that includes pre-tax and post-tax assets, will generally include a prorated amount of pre- and post tax assets... An exception applies to post-tax assets accrued pre-1987, where a participant may withdraw those amounts without the prorated treatment ( grandfathered rule) . Life and Death Planning for Retirement Benefits by Natalie B. Choatehttps://www.ataxplan.com/life-and-death-planning-for-retirement-benefits/ www.DeniseAppleby.com
J2D2 Posted April 22, 2005 Posted April 22, 2005 I think the answer to the "why" part is that Congress (or IRS, I don't remember which) decided it should be that way. Don't mean to be flip, but have also been in the business long enough that I don't try to divine the reasoning behind the actions of the Solons of the Potomac (even with actions more recent than '86).
Appleby Posted April 22, 2005 Posted April 22, 2005 I think the answer to the "why" part is that Congress (or IRS, I don't remember which) decided it should be that way. Don't mean to be flip, but have also been in the business long enough that I don't try to divine the reasoning behind the actions of the Solons of the Potomac (even with actions more recent than '86). word!!! Life and Death Planning for Retirement Benefits by Natalie B. Choatehttps://www.ataxplan.com/life-and-death-planning-for-retirement-benefits/ www.DeniseAppleby.com
Kirk Maldonado Posted April 25, 2005 Posted April 25, 2005 Appleby: Is the word "Congress?" (Because the grandfathering treatment was enacted by Congress?) If that wasn't responsive to your post, could you be a bit more expansive in a subsequent post, clarifying your prior message? I appreciate concise posts, but I think you lost some clarity in your quest for brevity. Kirk Maldonado
Appleby Posted April 25, 2005 Posted April 25, 2005 Kirk, I guess I have picked up some slang from my children… "Word" just means that I agree with J2D2’s post. Instead of “word”, you may say, “ Ain’t that the truth”, or “ I am in total agreement with your comment”. Almost every day a customer will ask us 'why is that so'… and mostly, as J2D2 indicated, the answer is simply because congress made it so. Does that help to clarify my response? Life and Death Planning for Retirement Benefits by Natalie B. Choatehttps://www.ataxplan.com/life-and-death-planning-for-retirement-benefits/ www.DeniseAppleby.com
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish Posted April 25, 2005 Posted April 25, 2005 I think the children are picking up some old slang foshizzle. I remember Vanilla Ice saying, "Word to your mother" about 15 years ago. P.S. No, I wasn't a fan. "What's in the big salad?" "Big lettuce, big carrots, tomatoes like volleyballs."
WDIK Posted April 25, 2005 Posted April 25, 2005 I thought that The Trashmen established in 1964 that the bird is the word. ...but then again, What Do I Know?
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