John A Posted October 8, 1999 Posted October 8, 1999 How do the spousal consent rules apply in the following situation: married participant has $4,000 vested balance in a money purchase plan, $4,000 profit sharing balance plus $4,000 deferral balance in a 401(k)/profit sharing plan that is subject to J&S rules?
david rigby Posted October 9, 1999 Posted October 9, 1999 Assuming the plans have been amended to increase the involuntary cash-out limit from $3500 to $5000, the limit applies to each plan. Don't know of any requirement to add the amounts from multiple plans together. [This message has been edited by pax (edited 10-10-1999).] I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
John A Posted October 11, 1999 Author Posted October 11, 1999 pax, just to clarify: assuming the $5,000 limit, are you saying that 1) no spousal consent is required for the money purchase plan distribution since the amount is less than the $5,000 cash-out limit, and 2) spousal consent is required in the 401(k) profit sharing plan since the $8,000 total distribution is above the cash-out limit (that is, the total plan distribution amount is considered; it does not matter that some of the money is from employee contributions and some from employer contributions)? Thanks!
david rigby Posted October 11, 1999 Posted October 11, 1999 Yep. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
KJohnson Posted October 13, 1999 Posted October 13, 1999 Pax--Is there some reason you thought you needed a Plan amendment or can you simply institute the $5,000 provision as long as you adopt an amendment within the remedial amendment period?
david rigby Posted October 13, 1999 Posted October 13, 1999 OK, I think that is correct; you do have until the remedial amendment period. However, my preference is to document the intended amendment. Perhaps that can be a memo to file stating the administrative practice that will then be placed in a formal amendment. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Dave Baker Posted October 13, 1999 Posted October 13, 1999 But if the plan is terminating, I think one probably needs to have the paperwork amended to add the $5,000 cash-out rule before all the funds leave the trust.
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